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You left out the ONLY element that would make it count as rape. Did you take advantage of a drunk person who wouldn't have otherwise slept with you?I am not so sure.
Let us say that I'm out on the town, but a little shy. I know, sober, that I might be too shy to ask abunch of girls out. So I drink some alcohol to give myself the courage and hit up the bars. I then wake up in the morning and realize I slept with someone that I never would have sober. Is that rape? Under your definition it seems to fit, yet isn't that entirely the reason why I went drinking in the first place?
Because one involves the violation of your body, which believe it or not some people consider a big deal. It can also lead to pregnancy, STDs or other potentially long-term consequences. The fact that you don't understand this is a testament to your stupidity.Why is there a distinction between these two things? Because feminists said so?
Signing a contract is an active decision too, right? Why void it if the person was taken advantage of? Take all the time you need to think about it.Hate to pee on your feminist parade but choosing to have sex is an active decision, just like choosing to drive a car. Unless that woman is being dragged kicking and screaming to a bed and restrained against her will, she is making an active decision of her own free will.
Nothing I ever said even remotely implies that. Thanks for trying, though. I know you like to participate.By your definition any woman who has had a drink and had sex is already automatically being taken advantage of. This is hilarious.
Here's a ribbon for you.