Good question. Why does US have lowest representation of women considering that women comprise the majority of the voters?
As far as donations go, lets take Obama's 2012 campaign for example:
Obama campaign final fundraising total: $1.1 billion - Byron Tau - POLITICO.com
The campaign disclosed that it had 4.5 million total donors to the campaign and the Democratic National Committee, including 2.9 million new donors who didn't pitch in during the 2008 cycle. According to the data presented by the campaign, the average donation was $65.89. The campaign also shed new light on their funding sources - revealing that while the campaign was largely funded by major donors throughout 2011 and 2012, small online donations grew exponentially and outpaced big donors as a revenue stream by the summer of 2012. All told, the campaign's online fundraising apparatus brought in $525 million, while the bundling and high dollar fundraising of the NFC brought in $286 million. Mail brought in an additional $229 million, with the rest coming from telemarketing or other sources.
Wait I know, you're going to tell me that this is on a national level for someone who already has name recognition, a platform from which to speak, etc. Fair enough. Why wasn't Hilary nominated in 2008 then? Why did 400 FEMALE DNC Superdelegates voted for Obama at the convention vs. the 280 FEMALE Superdelegates for Hilary? She has 20 years of name recognition and is one of the best known female politicians in the world, right up there with Merkel, Thatcher and others.
I know you'll try to dodge these examples and try to claim that women running at state levels cant get any donations from these rich white men and thus can't run or put together a platform. Maybe these women should hit up all the other women in a grassroots effort for donations, or other rich white women. Or even hit up the DNC, which LOVES women. And yet with all these opportunities available, the domination of electorate, women are still vastly underrepresented.
Why is that?