I hesitate to use an analogy because any analogy brings about cries of "false equivalency!", but let's look at jaywalking. It's illegal, everybody knows it, but everybody does it. If you do it in front of a cop and get a ticket, are you going to use the excuse that everybody else gets away with it, or that you've been trapped? Cops know everybody jaywalks, they don't give a shit. But if you do it in front of their faces there may be consequences because yes, it's illegal. There are circumstances under which it's OK, and there are circumstances under which it isn't even though it's always technically illegal.
Edit: Not saying drinking & fucking is illegal. I'm saying in the way jaywalking is always illegal even when it's fine and noone gives a shit, consent can not be given when drunk, even though it's often fine and noone gives a shit.
People drink to bring about mutually desired sexual circumstances all the time. Even though they are lowering their inhibitions through an external influence. Even though they are compromising their ability to make rational choices and, yes, give consent. We accept this because responsible adults are able to do this without anybody getting hurt. But if you can't understand the difference between people using alcohol to bring about a mutually desired result, and somebody using alcohol to get someone else to do something they had no interest in doing and would not have done otherwise, then stay the fuck away from drunk girls. There is a big difference between two people who want to fuck drinking, and somebody taking advantage of someone who's drinking to fuck them. Why is this so difficult to grasp? What are you, any of you, giving up by acknowledging this?
Mist previously mentioned earlier that taking advantage of drunk men is often how women rape, which makes sense. Trollface previously mentioned that about a third of rapes are committed by women. So which is it? I highly doubt Trollface's statistics exclusively include women violently overpowering men. If taking advantage of drunk people to fuck them is good enough to be considered rape for female instigators, why wouldn't it for men? Or, conversely, if taking advantage of drunk people doesn't count as rape, than isn't the "1/3 of rapes are committed by women" meaningless since most of those rapes "don't count"? Trollface, I'd genuinely like to hear your take on this.
